1. Which of the following was enacted to prohibit virtual child pornography, arguing in part that the very existence of child pornography, real or not, increased child molestation and pedophilia?

A. Child Protection and Obscenity Enforcement Act 

B. Child Sexual Abuse and Pornography Act 

C. Child Protection Act 

D. Child Pornography Prevention Act

2. The increased use of which of the following is argued as evidence of the U.S. Patriot Act’s potential danger?

A. Omnibus Crime Control and Safe Streets Act 

B. Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Act 

C. Federal Rules of Civil Procedure 

D. National Security Letters 

3. Which of the following is considered the most effective tool in the arsenal to fight terrorism and computer crime alike?

A. USA Patriot Act 

B. Wiretap Act 

C. National Security Act 

D. Immigration and Nationality Act 

4. Which of the following did the government traditionally rely upon to prosecute online sports wagering and bookmaking activities?

A. Illegal Gambling Business Act 

B. Unlawful Internet Gambling Enforcement Act 

C. Gambling Enforcement Act 

D. Wire Act 

5. Which of the following Acts replaced the Protection of Children against Sexual Exploitation Act of 1977, in an effort to tighten prohibitions of child pornography on the federal level?

A. Child Protection and Obscenity Enforcement Act 

B. Child Sexual Abuse and Pornography Act 

C. Child Protection Act 

D. Child Protection Restoration and Penalties Enhancement Act 

6. __________ is the weakest standard that is sufficient to authorize an investigative detention.

A. Presumed guilty 

B. Reasonable suspicion 

C. Probable cause 

D. Particularity 

7. Which of the following acts made it unlawful for local, state, or federal law enforcement authorities to search or seize those materials that may be publishable?

A. The Wiretap Act 

B. The Patriot Act 

C. The Privacy Protection Act 

D. The National Security Act 

8. What makes Child Pornography Prevention Act (CPPA) different from Child Protection Act (CPA)?

A. CPPA prohibited the production and distribution of computer-generated or other mechanically altered images of minors engaging in explicit conduct. 

B. CPPA upheld the Constitutional rights of the offenders who distributed computer-generated or other mechanically altered images of minors. 

C. CPPA legalized the production and distribution of computer-generated or other mechanically altered images of minors engaging in explicit conduct. 

D. CPPA assumed that the absence or presence of an actual victim is very relevant, as simulated child pornography did not violate a child’s rights.

9. What was the ruling of U.S. v. Carey on warranted searches of computer files?

A. The “plain view” doctrine is relevant to what is uncovered in computer searches. 

B. Warrants are not needed for searches of computer files. 

C. Since digital evidence can be stored virtually anywhere, it is necessary to search all possibilities. 

D. Warrants require less particularity when a computer is an instrument of a crime

10. The Unlawful Internet Gambling Enforcement Act of 2006 aimed at:

A. reducing the flow of money. 

B. regulating the number of online gambling sites. 

C. preventing minors from participating in online gambling. 

D. legitimizing online gambling.

11. Which of the following statements holds true regarding Osborne v. Ohio?

A. The Court held that a person over the statutory age who perhaps looked younger could be utilized for literary or artistic value. 

B. The Court finally established a standard of scienter that had been lacking until then. 

C. The court argued that any legislation must be evaluated independently, as the First Amendment does require specificity in an elemental application. 

D. The Court relied on statistics and opinions gathered from sources ranging from scholars to law enforcement practitioners to child psychologists 

12. How has the advent of electronic communications helped child pornographers defy the existing broad laws regarding indecency and victimization of children?

A. Child pornographers argue that the Constitution guarantees their right to disseminate any information through the Internet. 

B. The origin of the pornographic material available on the Internet is Untraceable. 

C. The Internet helps to spread Pornography cheaply. 

D. Child pornographers argue that virtual children lack the requisite specified victim

13. Which Act was designed to address the problems with the Child Pornography Prevention Act?

A. PROTECT Act 

B. Child Protection Act 

C. Child Sexual Abuse and Pornography Act 

D. Child Protection, Restoration and Penalties Enhancement Act 

14. Which of the following was the ground for the court to invalidate the Communications Decency Act?

A. The harshness of retribution 

B. Its inability to define “minor” 

C. Its inability to protect the interests of children 

D. Its over breadth and vagueness 

15. Which of the following can seize and liquidate property within the United States of any foreign individual, entity, or country who is suspected of planning, authorizing, aiding, or engaging in an attack?

A. The Supreme Court 

B. The President or his/her designee 

C. The Governor of that particular state 

D. The police commissioner 

16. Which Act was struck down as the Court observed that both teenage sexual activity and the sexual abuse of children had inspired countless literary works, including that of William Shakespeare and contemporary movies?

A. Child Protection Restoration and Penalties Enhancement Act 

B. Child Sexual Abuse and Pornography Act 

C. Child Protection Act 

D. Child Pornography Prevention Act 

17. What should an investigator do if contraband that does not come under the present warrant is found in pursuit of items covered under the original warrant?

A. Focus on the original warrant 

B. Seize the contraband under the present warrant 

C. Get a secondary warrant 

D. Record it in the SOP and wait for the court’s intervention 

18. A __________ is the disk management platform employed by a particular operating system.

A. file system 

B. hard drive 

C. Windows 7 

D. ASCII 

19. What enables investigators to perfectly duplicate a suspect drive onto a form of removable media?

A. Imaging programs 

B. Investigative programs 

C. Recovery discs 

D. External hard drives

20. Which of the following is NOT an advantage attributed to the introduction of disk operating systems?

A. It provides for the storage of documents in contiguous sectors. 

B. It reduces the data management burden of applications. 

C. It allows application-specific disk hierarchies. 

D. It maximizes the use of limited space 

21. The development and regular review of which of the following is essential as technology changes?

A. Cyclical redundancy checksum 

B. Master boot record 

C. Standard operating procedures 

D. Cipher combination locks

22. __________ is the fear of new technology.

A. Cyberphobia 

B. Cyberfear 

C. Computer fear 

D. Xenophobia 

23. Which of the following is a single circular disk with concentric tracks that are turned by spindles under one or more heads?

A. Logical drive 

B. Sector 

C. Fixed disk 

D. Floppy disk 

24. Which of the following tools are the most popular and stand-alone imaging utilities employed for forensic investigators?

A. EnCase and FastBloc 

B. ByteBack and Safeback 

C. DECLASFY and BRANDIT 

D. Data Dumper and Grep 

25. Forensic imaging programs must be capable of making __________ duplicate or an image.

A. redundant 

B. copy 

C. bitstream 

D. hard 

26. Which of the following are the three primary components of a computer?

A. Hardware, firmware, operating systems 

B. Firmware, hardware, software 

C. Software, hardware, operating systems 

D. Firmware, software, Maresware 

27. Which lab system is capable of handling larger workloads simultaneously?

A. Better Lab System 

B. Dream Lab System 

C. Power Lab System 

D. Basic Lab System 

28. The statement of compliance or noncompliance with certain specifications or other requirements must be:

A. notarized. 

B. included in the report. 

C. authorized by a judge. 

D. approved by a supervisor. 

29. During analysis of digital evidence, which of the following elements is addressed?

A. Password crackers 

B. Truncated entries 

C. Case number 

D. Actus reus 

30. Which of the following can be attributed to the demand for a centralized disk operating system and the birth of DOS?

A. Increased responsibilities among local police agencies 

B. Increased interest in emerging technology 

C. Increased consumer choice and market competition 

D. Increased concern for security of data 

31. Which of the following is true of a hexadecimal system?

A. Interpretative rules are associated with a base of two with integers represented by zeroes and ones. 

B. Interpretative rules are associated with a base of 16 with integers ranging from 0 to 9 and A to F. 

C. The range of whole numbers that can be represented by a single byte is 0 to 255. 

D. Investigators do not need to evaluate files with a hexadecimal viewer 

32. ASCII code for defining characters is based on __________ code.

A. hexadecimal 

B. binary 

C. RAM 

D. sector 

33. A(n) __________ FAT is used if a disk requires less than 65,536 but more than 4,096 clusters.

A. 4-bit 

B. 16-bit 

C. 8-bit 

D. 32-bit 

34. Overt files are not:

A. visible. 

B. hidden, deleted, or encrypted. 

C. important. 

D. recoverable. 

35. Which of the following programs extends decryption capabilities beyond a single computer by using the distributed power of multiple computers across a network to decrypt files and recover passwords?

A. Password Recovery Toolkit 

B. FTK Imager 

C. Distributed Network Attack 

D. Registry Viewer 

36. Which of the following factors is most important in determining the type of tool to be used in a computer forensics investigation?

A. Type of crime encountered 

B. Type of information 

C. Type of concealment 

D. Type of suspect device 

37. Which of the following refers to the area of a computer that holds data during processing and is erased when power is shut down?

A. Static memory 

B. Primary storage 

C. Volatile memory 

D. Secondary storage